Challenge1: v5_Kd

Submitted by LBM on Fri, 2011-07-15 19:56

In the set of perturbations to be performed on Model1, one calls for a 10x increase in " v5_Kd (Kd of p4) ". However, isn't v5_Kd the Kd of p6 (and not p4), as can be deduced from Figure1A?

In this case, which one is the typo? p4 or v5_Kd?

Thank you.

‹ Model 1, SBML file, slight confusion Challenge 4: Pearson correlation ›

Comments

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According to the sbml and all

Submitted by LBM on Sun, 2011-07-17 04:44.

According to the sbml and all other files:

rs1 = 1/(1 + ([p6]/v5_Kd)^v5_h)

and

rs5 = 1/(1 + ([p4]/v7_h)^v7_h)

According to this, v5_Kd is the Kd of p6 and v7_Kd is that of p4.

Or am I missing something here?

Zeina

Hi Zeina you are right, I

Submitted by Dream_manager on Mon, 2011-07-18 02:39.

Hi Zeina

you are right, I changed the write up so as it is coherent

thanks for the sharp comment

Pablo